Hi FlicketyB
Several other things will have to be clarified.
You could have a situation where a wife could have to go in to care and a husband continues to live in the house.
Under the present system if the wife has no savings and her only asset is her share in the house the house can not be sold or any charge put on it to pay any of her care fees.
Will a charge be put on the house for the £75,000 which will enable the husband to still live in it but the council will recover the money when the house is sold.
I lived with my father after my wife passed away and my mother left me her half of the house when she passed away and my house was sold.
Hapily my father never went in to care but if that situation had happened he was in a situation where he owned half of a 4 bedroom detatched house but had very little money in cash terms.
As I was an owner occupier the council could not sell or put any charge on the house as I have the right to live in it.
I owned a fully paid for house in London in the past with my late wife and still have the sale proceeds.
In my type of situation in future will the council have powers to put a charge on the house for the £75,000 or make me pay from the proceeds of the house I previously owned.
I could see some argument happening about this.
While I was living with Dad I was paying about 70% of the bills which I would want taking in to account but I am not sure if that would happen.
As I was living with Dad for about 8 years I am sure there would have been £75,000 belonging to Dad in the house equity but this might have not been the case if I had been living with him for say 20 years.
Frank
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