It seems to be the consensus that when a woman withholds sex from her husband she is being manipulative - There couldn't possibly be another reason?
I call BS, but surely I could be mistaken -
What if a wife who had been emotionally manipulated for over a decade and verbally abused gradually reached a breaking point and no longer felt like having sex in that marriage dynamic anymore? Would her disinterest in having sex with him still be considered manipulative?
How do you acknowledge Easter.