Heather Heying uses the word "hot" to describe a woman. I believe it was an expression originally coined by men to describe women purely in sexual terms and which implies she is available. Her use of the word, in my opinion, demonstrates her willingness to accept this notion, which, in effect, reduces women to sexual objects.
She says "When women doll themselves up in clothes to highlight sexually-selected anatomy and put make up on that hints at impending orgasm, it is toxic to demand that men do not look, do not approach, do not query."
For one thing, I'm not sure anyone has suggested men should not look at women or approach them - and it is certainly not illegal to do so. But looking and approaching is very different from crude and intimidating comments or actual physical assault.
For another, this sounds dangerously like the sort of reasoning that various religious groups use to justify imposing "rules" on their women as to what manner of dress and adornment are acceptable so as to:
prevent them from "tempting" men
save them from sexual assault, which will inevitably occur if they break the rules, and for which they will be held ultimately responsible.
What exactly constitutes clothes that highlight sexually-selected anatomy? A clingy v-necked jumper? An off-the-shoulder blouse? a short blouse that reveals the belly button? a pair of shorts? a short skirt/dress? (and, if so, what would be an acceptable length of skirt/dress - knee length, midi, full length?) a leotard that shows the contours of the body? In the "old days" the glimpse of an ankle was thought to be provocative and indecent.
What exactly is make up that hints at impending orgasm? Lipstick of any colour? red lipstick? glossy lipstick? blusher? Should we return to the "old days" when women who wore make up were seen as being immoral and promiscuous?
She says that "any claim made by a member of an historically oppressed group is [held to be] unquestionably true". Is that really the case? Does the arrest and conviction rate for sexual crimes demonstrate this? The term "oppressed group" is obviously also meant to encompass ethnic groups and suggests, as with women, that their ethnicity affords them great advantages and privileges over other groups. Is that truly the case for non-white people/women in the US or here?