I read that Bailey said the public sector productivity was nor improving, rather than that it wasn't contributing to over all productivity.
Public sector productivity is calculated quite differently from private sector productivity. Private sector is in the nature of a financial calculation of the contribution workers make to profits.
Public sector, obviously, can't do that because the public sector doesn't make any money directly, even though it has a very significant contribution to make to economic activity in the domestic economy by means of purchasing goods and services and the payment of wages.
So, their productivity is, apparently, calculated on the financial inputs, such as purchase of goods and services, capital spending and wages. Inputs are compared with 'outputs' to see if increased inputs engender increased outputs.
I'm not sure how 'outputs' are calculated, though. I can understand if it were just straight targets, such as shorter waiting times for surgery, more GP appointments, more criminals caught and prosecuted. But what about the non tangibles?
What about increased expenditure on maintenance and repairs of the public estate? Or increased expenditure on teacher training leading to better outputs for pupils?
In the instance of repairs and maintenance how could the output even be determined, let alone monitored? Or in the case of increased spend on training, if, as is inevitable, there is a time lag between the spend and its results is that accounted for?
Trying to find answers to questions like this I got the impression that calculating public sector productivity is something of an art rather than a science. So maybe not an absolute measure to trust implicitly?
Good Morning Wednesday 6th May 2026
If you bought a potato salad would you expect potato?
It’s been a while so I will start us off…….whats for supper and why?


