My AI says:
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The claim that “UK government debt and borrowing triggered major financial crises” is much less convincing when the three examples are examined separately.
1976: Britain certainly had a serious sterling crisis, and government borrowing was high. But that does not establish that government debt caused the crisis. The Bank of England's own contemporary analysis said that it was difficult to identify precisely the sources of pressure on sterling, while the IMF emphasised Britain's exceptionally high inflation and the resulting loss of competitiveness. So 1976 cannot simply be presented as “government borrowing caused sterling to fall”.
2008: This is an especially poor example. The crisis originated in the international banking and credit system, following huge accumulations of debt and risk in banks and the private sector. Governments then borrowed more as they dealt with the recession and the banking crisis. In other words, in substantial part the financial crisis caused the increase in government borrowing, rather than government borrowing causing the financial crisis.
There is also a further confusion here between government borrowing and Bank of England monetary operations. From 2009 the Bank of England bought large quantities of gilts under QE, paying for them by creating new Bank of England reserves. The Bank was not obtaining money that somebody else had previously saved and lending it to the government. It was exchanging one form of government liability — gilts — for another — central-bank reserves.
2022: The mini-budget did cause a major market shock, but again the description “government debt caused it” is misleading. The sudden fiscal announcement caused investors to reassess inflation, interest rates and the government's fiscal position. Gilt prices then fell sharply. That exposed severe vulnerabilities in LDI pension arrangements: collateral demands forced funds to sell gilts, producing a self-reinforcing fire-sale.
The Bank of England intervened by creating reserves and buying £19.3bn of gilts. It did this to stabilise the gilt market, not to finance government spending. It subsequently sold those gilts again.
So these three episodes do not demonstrate a simple relationship of:
more government borrowing → more government debt → sterling falls → financial crisis.
They demonstrate rather different mechanisms.
1976 involved inflation, the balance of payments and pressure on sterling.
2008 was fundamentally a banking and private-debt crisis, after which government borrowing increased dramatically.
2022 involved an abrupt fiscal-policy shock which was then greatly amplified by a liquidity and collateral crisis in the LDI sector.
And there is an important monetary point which the AI claim obscures: Bank of England purchases of gilts with newly created reserves are not government borrowing. The Bank creates the reserves with which it buys the bonds. From the perspective of the consolidated government sector, QE changes the composition of government liabilities; it does not mean that the government has gone into the market to borrow money that already existed.
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