Not sure if anyone has experience of this sort of situation, but here goes. Thanks in advance for any advice.
I divorced my husband recently after a very long marriage. I understand he remarried not long after decree absolute was granted. Things were settled out of court re: finances, etc. after one court appearance attended by both of us a few months before DA. I am still living in the former marital home. No mortgage. It is up for sale. However, I have paid for its upkeep since he left a year ago. If it doesn't sell within a certain period of time, would I be legally entitled to keep it? His name is still on the title deeds, so I know he'd have to agree. I have no partner and am doing part-time work.
