To be fair to Alison Saunders, DPP, on the radio she explained that the law covering FGM is not only concerned with the initial cutting (the patient in question was cut aged 6, in Somalia) but covers other aspects of mutilation, in this case stitching which re-instated the FGM condition.
The patient needed stitching but as I understand things, it was the way the surgeon re-stitched that got him into trouble.
The reason for bringing the case makes a little more sense now.
It got me thinking - presumably the mother consented to the stitching so she wasn't assaulted, rather like the consent given by women who have 'cosmetic' labiaplasty and re-fashioning when there's nothing medically wrong. Could that be FGM? 