GrannyGravy13
I have several,questions.
1. Does Mrs. Sunak have a majority share holding in the Indian Company which is trading with Russia?
2. Is she able to have any influence in changing its trading ethos, as it is not illegal to trade with Russia in India.
3. Is she going to divest herself of her shares and/or donate any profits since the illegal invasion to a Ukrainian Charity.
I am not responsible for my husbands investments, he is definitely not responsible for mine.
As his wife’s wealth is known, he must have declared it.
Can't answer all your questions, GG13 but, as I understand it, she doesn't have a majority shareholding. But it is a family business and the family holds the majority (if not 'all') the shares.
As it's a family business one would assume that she has an opportunity to comment on its trading ethos. Personally I doubt this would be in slightest bit influential as her father is a friend of Putin, and is Indian, India has taken a different view of the invasion of Ukraine from that of GB, i.e is supportive of Putin.
As his wife’s wealth is known, he must have declared it.
Once again, not positive about this but I understand that he hasn't declared it.
I realise that husbands and wives are under no obligation to take an interest in their spouse's investments, but as Sunak is Chancellor of a country which is sanctioning Putin's Russia and is supporting Ukraine it is not a good look for his wife to be earning from investment in Russia.
But, it's the sort of behaviour one expects from members of this tory government...