This sort of thing maddens me.
It has, during my adult life, in other words since 1968, been increasingly popular in the theatrical and in the academic world to claim that some or other historical figure was homosexual, lesbian, bisexual or whatever the modern trend is.
No account is apparently taken of whether there are any historical sources that can be conclusively taken to prove the thesis.
Elizabeth I may have been non-binary, but stop just a minute.
If your father had divorced his first wife, married your mother in dubious circumstances when you were on the way, married her again in order to remove the likelihood that you would be called illegitimate, got tired of your mother and had her executed on charges that in her own day and age, many people, including the Mayor of London, felt were a tissue of lies, would you be able to trust any man, ever?
In Elizabeth's case, dear daddy having got rid of her mother, married and produced a son and then decided that both his daughters of former marriages were illegitimate. He later married a cousin of Elizabeth's of whom she was fond, and had her killed too.
To cap it all, Elizabeth watched her elder sister trying to rule at a time when married women had no rights except those their husbands gave them, and having to battle either with husband or privy council every step of the way.
Surely these circumstances are just as plausible a solution to why Elizabeth chose not to fulfil the principal expectation of her day to a woman: to marry and produce a child?
Our day and age tends to feel that no adult can live a happy well-balanced life without sex. Elizabeth's time felt that no woman could lead a well-balanced life without marriage.
Surely, Elizabeth with her family history, cannot NOT have had serious doubts about marriage as the road to happiness?
She is also very unlikely to actually ever have slept with any or all the men that flocked around her throne - the risk of being called a whore like her mother, and coming to the same end was simply too great.
Doing so left her without "an heir of her own body" but no-one has yet conclusively decided what Henry VIII actually died of. If, as some of the symptons sources mention suggest syphillis are correct, his descendants may all have been sterile.
We don't know and never will.
The historical facts we do know, rather suggest that any woman with her family background would hesitate greatly to give up, not only her own legal rights to decide her future, by marrying, but her right to rule.
She had, after all, only to remember her sister's experience of being a married sovereign, or look at the debacle north of the border to feel that marriage and sovereignity did not go together, when you had been born female.