buffyfly9
I worked in a 100% dispensing practice, there was no dispensing chemist within the area at that time. In my defence I did point out that the pharmacy had to be paid for dispensing it (the prescription fee) and for the drug(s) supplied. We are splitting hairs here and other posters misinformation abounds!! I'm losing the will to live so I'm signing out of this discussion.
Thanks for the explanation. No, we're not splitting hairs at all.
GPs are not paid for prescribing. As your GP practice was a dispensing practice, it was paid for dispensing, which is not the same thing at all.
The fee paid by the NHS covered the cost of buying in drugs from wholesalers. There would only have been an incentive, if GPs were prescribing drugs for which the NHS paid more than the cost at which they could be obtained.
Most GPs in highly populated urban areas can't dispense for most of their patients. My own practice is a dispensing practice, but most patients have to go to a pharmacist in town to have prescriptions dispensed because we live within a mile of a pharmacist. Apparently, the GP pharmacist loses money because an increasing number of people are using online dispensers and only offers the service as a convenience to patients living in more rural areas. They are not making any money when GPs prescribe. In fact, the opposite is true, if GPs prescribe something which is difficult to obtain and they end up paying more than the NHS is willing to reimburse.