I don’t think so. But if the lottery ‘ticket’ was bought before the decree absolute, I would. assume the winnings were part of the joint assets. I am not a solicitor, but I am just guessing…
My sons divorce has just been finalised. They had no assets so no financial agreement was necessary. I joked that now he could win the lottery and not have to share it with his ex. He said he had been told she could still claim from him even after divorce. Does anyone know if this is true?