In the process of selling our house and one of the questions on our conveyancing solicitors many forms is ‘do you have the title deeds to your property or know who does?’ Or words to that affect.
We bought this house in 2001 and still have every bit of paper associated with the sale but appears to be no deeds.
Would they be with the solicitor who dealt with our purchase at the time. Anyone know?
German voters slide inexorably to common sense …


