One of the issues that we see shouted - along side the god-like knowledge of what leave meant - is that of anything the leavers don't like is "undemocratic".
There is a much quoted saying that "democracy requires the consent of the loser". This is not the "agreement" but the consent. Sajid Javid uses this a lot but he seems not to understand it. When he says it he seems to infer that the loser MUST consent. So, for instance, the loser in a race for gold medals must consent to the person coming first being the winner, even if it is proved that they were on drugs. It obviously does not mean this.
Did the "winners", who appeared to be the leave vote, provide the circumstances with which the losers, who appeared to be the remain vote, could consent? I would say not. On a basic level I do not believe the basic tenor of speech, e.g., "we won, suck it up" was conducive to consent. I do not believe that the sense that enough accurate information was given was conducive to consent (and I think that would have applied whichever side "won") and I do not believe that there was enough trust in the money trail and the PR to be conducive to consent.
Whether or not it proves to be fraudulent it has done nothing for our democracy unless we learn from it very quickly.