I brought this question up on a Brexit forum a few days ago and practically got hounded out of town. It was considered utterly irrelevant.
But actually, I think it is core to the debate about our relations with the EU, particularly as it is now 9 years since the referendum took place.
Parliamentary elections take place every 5 years, and we accept that after 5 years we may have changed our collective mind about which party we want to govern us, and that when we do that, the new governing party may well reverse some of the key policies of the previous government. We also accept, in a very grudging manner, that sometimes governments cannot deliver on their promises because events largely outside the government's control, makeit impossible.
So, if we think that we should all have an opportunity to vote for Parliament every 5 years, why should the results of a referendum be binding for more than 5 years?
In particular, since the referendum, around 6 million people have died. The majority will have been of voting age. Similarly about 7 million people have reached the age of 18, who were under that age in 2016, and the majority of these will be eligible to vote.
This is not an argument about how many of each age group voted or how, but if roughly 15% of the electorate at one end of the age range have disappeared to be replaced by as many or more voters the other end of the age range, then this can have a significant effect on the policies the electorate as a whole support. This is recognised in the fact that Parliament has to be re elected every 5 years.
So why should the results of a referendum be binding for a longer period than a Parliament and if you think it should be, how long should it be binding, 10 years, 50 years, 100 years and why?
New computer stolen by builder
A drop in the ocean in the great schemes of things....but replicated by how many more
