It appears that my solicitor has been holding some of my late DH's money in his clients account. He has just presented his bill for dealing with the estate and now wishes to deduct the money owing from the amount in the clients account.
Just wondering whether this is normal practice?
I know the bill has to be paid but surely the money should have been transferred to me so that I could decide how to pay - I may have preferred to pay by credit card for example.
Not had to deal with this before, so have no idea whether this is normal. Any light shed would be much appreciated.
Is there anyone who still thinks that Israel's actions in Gaza are justifiable?
Is it me or am I getting mixed messages