It seems to be the consensus that when a woman withholds sex from her husband she is being manipulative - There couldn't possibly be another reason?
I call BS, but surely I could be mistaken -
What if a wife who had been emotionally manipulated for over a decade and verbally abused gradually reached a breaking point and no longer felt like having sex in that marriage dynamic anymore? Would her disinterest in having sex with him still be considered manipulative?
Fruit flies - help needed please.
Army horses loose on London streets
Have any of you got all electric cars? Pros and cons please.